Judge bans the word rape from his courtroom.

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jrose
Judge bans the word rape from his courtroom.

 

jrose

[url=http://www.slate.com/id/2168758/nav/tap2/]A Nebraska judge bans the word rape from his courtroom.[/url]

quote:

Yet a Nebraska district judge, Jeffre Cheuvront, suddenly finds himself in a war of words with attorneys on both sides of a sexual assault trial. More worrisome, he appears to be at war with language itself, and his paradoxical answer is to ban it: Last fall, Cheuvront granted a motion by defense attorneys barring the use of the words rape, sexual assault, victim, assailant, and sexual assault kit from the trial of Pamir Safi—accused of raping Tory Bowen in October 2004. ...

Bowen testified for 13 hours at Safi's first trial last October, all without using the words rape or sexual assault. She claims, not unreasonably, that describing what happened to her as sex is almost an assault in itself. "This makes women sick, especially the women who have gone through this," Bowen told the Omaha World-Herald. "They know the difference between sex and rape."

Nebraska law offers judges broad discretion to ban evidence or language that present the danger of "unfair prejudice, confusion of the issues or misleading the jury." And it's not unheard-of for judges to keep certain words out of a courtroom. Words like victim have been increasingly kept out of trials, since they tend to imply that a crime was committed. And as Safi's lawyer, Clarence Mock, explains, the word rape is just as loaded. "It's a legal conclusion for a witness to say, 'I was raped' or 'sexually assaulted.' … That's for a jury to decide." His concern is that the word rape so inflames jurors that they decide a case emotionally and not rationally. ...

The real question for Judge Cheuvront, then, is whether embedded in the word sex is another "legal conclusion"—that the intercourse was consensual. And it's hard to conclude otherwise. Go ahead, use the word sex in a sentence. Asking a complaining witness to scrub the word rape or assault from her testimony is one thing. Asking that she imply that she agreed to what her alleged assailant was doing to her is something else entirely. To put it another way: If the complaining witness in a rape trial has to describe herself as having had "intercourse" with the defendant, should the complaining witness in a mugging be forced to testify that he was merely giving his attacker a loan? ...

You needn't be a radical legal feminist to cringe at the idea of judges ordering rape complainants to obliterate from their testimony any language that signifies an assault. At worst, that judge is ordering her to lie. At best, he is asking her to play at being a human thesaurus: thinking up coded ways to describe to the jury what she believes to have happened. If Mock, Safi's attorney, is correct in stating that "trials are competing narratives of what happened," why should one side have a lock on the narrative language used? Can it really be that the cure for the problem of ambiguous courtroom language is to permit less of it?


Michelle

Uh, what? This is the most stupid, misogynist thing I've ever heard! The word "rape" and "sexual assault" is prejudicial at a RAPE TRIAL??

Gee, I can just imagine the testimony.

"He held me down, hit me a few times, and then he raped..."

"Ms. Doe - please remember that "rape" is prejudicial. Please do not use that word."

"I'm sorry, your honour. He forced me to make love with him. Then he ra -- er, we had sex with each other at knifepoint. I tried to get away, and I screamed for help, but no one heard me, and he sexually assaulted me for so long..."

"Ms. Doe...?"

"Er, sorry, made love to me for so long that I was bruised..."

"Ms. Doe, I'm sorry, you can't use the word "bruised" in my courtroom. It's prejudicial."

"I'm sorry, your honour. He made love to me for so long, I had marks of love all over my body."

"That's better, Ms. Doe. Thank-you."

[img]mad.gif" border="0[/img] [img]mad.gif" border="0[/img] [img]mad.gif" border="0[/img]

jrose

The thing that bothered me the most, is that the jury was not told of such restrictions, meaning that they simply thought that the witness had chosen to use the words that she was FORCED to use.

Michelle

I think I'd have been tempted, as the victim, to keep using the words, and force the judge to instruct the jury to disregard it, feigning that I "slipped up".

Michelle

Here's what really ticks me off. The fact is, there are allegations being made against this guy. The allegations are that he sexually assaulted, or raped, this woman. In order to present the evidence to support this allegation, they have to be able to use the words! The witness has to be able to say, "He raped me." That's the allegation! It's up to the defence, if they want to claim that it was consensual sex, to use the term "sex" or "sexual intercourse" or "lovemaking" or whatever other word might do for their point of view.

If you are alleging that someone has sexually assaulted you, then you have to be able to say that the person sexually assaulted, or raped you. That's what the whole trial is trying to determine - whether or not a rape occurred! Bowen is a witness for the prosecution who claims a rape DID occur, so of course she's going to use the word "rape". It's disallowing her testimony and her version of events to force her not to be able to say what she says it was.

This is just ridiculous. This cannot be defended, even considering the assumption of innocence. Obviously witnesses who are telling their side of the story and who are accusing the person of committing the crime are not going to assume the person's innocence. It is up to the judge and jury to assume the person's innocence, not the prosecution and the witnesses!

remind remind's picture

She they should just have used non-consensual sex.

Stargazer

No, they should have used the word "rape".

No fucking wonder women don't report being raped. We haven't made many advances. This is beyond sane, and it is beyond fair. It is a horrible representation of just just how little society thinks of women, and of rape victims.

I am so damned sick of this system. It is not, does not and cannot work the way it is now.

jrose

[url=http://www.cbc.ca/radioshows/AS_IT_HAPPENS/20070625.shtml]An interview was aired on As It Happens[/url] earlier this week, speaking with the victim.

Michelle

It just floors me that a judge, who is supposed to hear both sides of the story and then decide (or help the jury decide) would not allow one side of the story to be told.

The witness's side of the story is that she was raped. The accused's side of the story is that it was consensual sex.

So, they should both be allowed to tell their story, as they see fit, and let the jury decide!

The worst part of this is that the judge, putting artificial words in this woman's mouth, is turning her into a non-credible witness, too. If the jury isn't aware of the restriction, and the woman sounds unnatural (as of course she would, being restrained from using the words that come naturally), then the jury could conclude from it that she is lying.

[ 29 June 2007: Message edited by: Michelle ]

Jacob Two-Two

This is outrageous. I hope the whole trial gets thrown out because of it. When has a judge ever told a witness, "don't say your money was [i]stolen[/i]. Don't say you were [i]assaulted[/i]. Don't say the cheque was [i]fraudulent[/i]."

Obviously, the defendent is being accused of doing something, or they wouldn't be in court, but now you're not allowed to make the accusation in court? WTF!?!?! It's always a case of one version of events vs. another version, but the judge is effectively eliminating one version from the evidence. This jerk should have his robes taken away. Is there any way to get rid of judges at all?

Michelle

And disbarred on top of it, if he's a lawyer.

kropotkin1951

This is outrageous. I found a Nebraska site that explains how judges become judges. This misogynist pig at some point has to have his appointment confirmed by the electorate.

[url=http://supremecourt.ne.gov/press/guide.shtml]Nebraska Courts[/url]

quote:

Retention of Judges

A judge must run for retention in office in the first general election that occurs more than 3 years after his or her appointment, and every 6 years thereafter.


It would be interesting to know how long he had before he had to face re-election when he made this unbelievable ruling.

[img]confused.gif" border="0[/img] [img]frown.gif" border="0[/img] [img]frown.gif" border="0[/img] [img]mad.gif" border="0[/img] [img]mad.gif" border="0[/img]

[ 29 June 2007: Message edited by: kropotkin1951 ]

jeff house

quote:


Here's what really ticks me off. The fact is, there are allegations being made against this guy. The allegations are that he sexually assaulted, or raped, this woman. In order to present the evidence to support this allegation, they have to be able to use the words!

In Canada, we don't use the word rape at all. This was the product of a series of reforms supported by feminists. The reasoning at the time was that "rape" does not convey the physical, assaultive nature of the act, which, according to many such as author Lorene Clark, "has nothing to do with sex, it has to do with power".

Generally, complainants in a sexual assault trial also do not say "He sexually assaulted me".

That is because it is a legal term. It is up to the jury to decide whether the acts described amount to the legally-defined term "sexual assault".

Typically, women explain how and where they were touched. So, "he entered me by force" or "He was grabbing me and I did not consent" are the most common ways.

The "sexual" nature of sexual assault in very broadly defined. In particular, it doesn't have to be done for the purposes of sexual gratification. It becomes "sexual" assault if it impacts upon the sexual integrity of the victim. So, for example, a father who invades his daughter's physical privacy to determine if she is a virgin commits sexual assault, even though his purpose is patriarchal-proprietary.

jeff house

quote:


When has a judge ever told a witness, "don't say your money was stolen. Don't say you were assaulted. Don't say the cheque was fraudulent."

Actually, this happens all the time in court.

It's not too hard to provide the testimony:

Did he take your money? "Yes".

Did you give him permission to take it? "No".

The practice of avoiding the stating of conclusions by witnesses is utterly common. Ask any Crown Attorney whether he or she says: "When he struck you with his hand, did he have your consent to do so?" They all do it.

Jacob Two-Two

I thought you might show up to prove me wrong, Jeff. I can see the logic in what you're saying. Are witnesses not meant to make accusations, then? If not them, then who?

Ken Burch

I thought that in a rape case, the prosecutor had to prove that the accused committed the rape. This twists that into the victim having to prove that she in fact WAS raped, and essentially having no way to do so.

It would have been enough to have it referred to as "the alleged rape".

The fact of her having been a victim should not have been arbitrarily put in question.

This judge would probably overturn the "rape shield" laws if he was on an Appeals or Supreme Court at state or federal level.

ChicagoLoopDweller

This would not change all that much in terms of a trial. If a prosecutor says to the victim, "Did he rape you?" and victim says "yes" and this is all that happens in a trial...the rapist will go free every time. The prosecutor, not the victim, has to prove each element of the crime of rape. Lack of consent, penetration, force...whatever the elements happen to be in a particular jurisdiction. This can be done without using the term rape.

Stargazer

Whether or not rape is a "legal term" is besides the point. Rape is a real life crime and no one should have to make reference to that crime in such as way as to avoid speaking directly to that crime in a language that crime demands. Rape is not pretty, neither is murder and words such as "non-consensual sex" do not even remotely come close to reality. There is no reason why the criminal justice system has to be so completely removed from everyday reality as to make it unusable for everyday people - victims, juries or anyone else.

Rape, as I've said before at least 100 times, should not and cannot be treated the same as property crimes. There is a fundamental problem with the justice system (rape is just one of the problems). People need to stop apologizing for it and those with the power to do so need to listen and change it.

ChicagoLoopDweller

Stargazer, what is rape? What is rape in Texas, Nebraska, Ontario, Ohio, Illinois..etc. Are all definitions of the crime the same?

We aren't talking about the real world, we are talking about a courtroom. If this guy is guilty they should bury him under the jail. But you don't actually need to say the word rape to convict someone of rape.

Michelle

Huh. Interesting. Okay, I can see that point, I guess. But I still don't like it that a woman who is asked to describe what happened to her is not allowed to use her own words, if it includes, "And then he raped me."

Stargazer

Chicago you missed my point completely. And I really wish that because I advocate for change in the justice system people would stop equating me with some harsh on crime person or worse, someone who enjoys seeing innocent people go to jail. I am anything but. The justice system is fundamentally flawed, in particular when it come to sexual crimes against women and children.

My point is exactly that the courts do not deal in reality. The movers and shakers in that courtroom determine the reality for everyone else. That is my point. That is not how rape should be dealt with in court, and in fact, it's not how many many crimes should be dealt with. Period.

ChicagoLoopDweller

Stargazer, you are exactly right. Courts do not deal in reality. They deal in legal concepts. In reality does it make sense that child pornography found on a computer without a warrant will most likely be excluded in a child molesters trial? In reality, if you have child porn, or a gun, or cocaine, or a bloody shirt, warrant or no warrant shouldn't that be evidence? The law, rightly so for privacy reasons, says no...this is why people hate the term "technicality." He got off on a technicality usually means one of those pesky rights got in the way. One right is that the jury should not be prejudiced. (And of course, in reality, most of the time that evidence will be introduced.)

I think one problem is how do you change the system. What system do you use? And please, you can tell me I'm a man and I don't get it, that it's obvious...but to many people it isn't obvious. Frankly, it's difficult. And I don't know that anyone has the answer...I certainly don't. How do you balance protecting the victim from being re-victimized against the right of a defendant to a fair trial and the assumption of innocence.

beenrapedmoreth...

Is this judge that guilty of such he can not stand hearing the word 'rape'? Come on if you know this judge tell us of his sex life with you!!!

[ 12 July 2007: Message edited by: beenrapedmorethanjustavictum ]

Michelle

I can understand your anger over this case, but there is absolutely no indication that the judge himself is a rapist.

Sven Sven's picture

quote:


Originally posted by Michelle:
[b]It just floors me that a judge, who is supposed to hear both sides of the story and then decide (or help the jury decide) would not allow one side of the story to be told.[/b]

They can tell their story without using “legal conclusions”. The defendant should not be able to say, “She consented to having sex with me.” Instead, he should be required to describe what actual words were said and what actions took place (assuming he testifies at all).

To look at an analogy: [b][i]Murder[/b][/i].

If a husband sees his wife killed, he would be required to describe what words and actions he saw. He can’t say, “He murdered my wife.”

“Murder” requires several things in order to be proven. For example, Minnesota law, for one type of murder in the first degree, requires that the state prove all of the following:

(1) The defendant [b][i]causes[/b][/i]
(2) the [b][i]death[/b][/i]
(3) of a [b][i]human being[/b][/i]
(4) with [b][i]premeditation[/b][/i] and
(5) with [b][i]intent[/b][/i] to effect the death

(2) and (3) are usually obvious (if there’s a body). But, (1), (4), and (5) may be in dispute.

Only if the state can prove that the defendant’s conduct met all five of those elements can the death be called “murder in the first degree”.

The term “premeditation” has it’s own specific definition (which must be supported with evidence before a legal conclusion can be made that there was, in fact, “premeditation”):

In Minnesota, “premeditation” means: [b][i]“to consider, plan or prepare for, or determine to commit, the act referred to prior to its commission”[/b][/i]

And, then, there are several degrees of murder (with their own definitions).

So…

The husband in this example can’t simply say, “He murdered my wife.” He needs to describe what happened. “He raised his gun and said, [i]‘I’ve been thinking about killing you for years because you failed me in 12th grade English. Last week, I finally decided to purchase a gun to kill you. Now, I’m going to do it.’[/i] And, then, he pulled the trigger and shot my wife six times in the chest. He ran out the door and I called 911 and my wife was dead when they got to our house.”

Then, the jury makes a legal determination based on that and other evidence as to whether or not “murder” occurred.

Obviously, it’s usually not that cut-and-dried. [url=http://ros.leg.mn/bin/getpub.php?pubtype=STAT_CHAP_SEC&year=current&sect... that's true for all crimes.[/url]

Now, whether this is "the right" way to address this or not, is a separate question. If it's not, then the existing process would need to be replaced with an alternative process.

[ 12 July 2007: Message edited by: Sven ]

Sven Sven's picture
remind remind's picture

Yes, a mistrial was declared by the judge, who blammed the victim for starting a media sensation about his banning of "words". Apparently, it was not just the word rape he banned. Also banned were: sexual assault kit, sexual assault and non-consensual sex.

The judge stated he would not have the use of and sensationalized word use that would bias the jury.

spillunk

more blame on top of more blame for the victim. some judge.

remind remind's picture

quote:


Originally posted by spillunk:
[b]more blame on top of more blame for the victim. some judge.[/b]

The more I think about this, the more I think it was done to silence even more woman about their rape.

How many woman will look at this circumstance and say: "no way am I going to have some bull shit Judge do something like this to me."

nutboy

I agree that the alleged victim in this case should be allowed to tell her side of the story in whatever words she chooses. However, it is appropriate that no court officer refer to her as "victim", instead "accuser" or "alleged victim" must be used.

I also am very wary of the idea that women who have had some amount of alcohol, but are not actually unconscious from that alcohol, can claim that they were "raped" simply because they were drunk of their own volition. By that standard, a heck of a lot of MEN have been "raped", too - how many men have, when tipsy, had sex with a woman that they wouldn't have had sex with if they were sober?

Of course, if a woman is touched, etc, in any way while unconscious, or if the drug/alcohol is surreptitiously slipped into her, then the man has indeed committed a crime or at least been a cad

oldgoat

nutboy. You are barred from the feminist forum until you grab a clue. A good start will be your familiarizing yourself with policies and proceedures, and general culture of the board.

nutboy

I think the judge is dead wrong in this case. An alleged rape victim has a right to tell her side of the story in her own words.

However - and granted that I haven't paid close attention to the details of this story - the woman's entire case seems dubious. She said she was "too drunk to consent to sex" which is vague. If she was too drunk to say "no" or "stop" then, she was indeed raped, but if not - if in fact,she could have said no or stop but didn't - then she was NOT raped.

It's interesting that many people think women who, after drinking, choose to have sex, are "raped" and not responsible for their actions, yet this same person would be held VERY responsible for their actions if they DROVE drunk.

Scout

quote:


nutboy. You are barred from the feminist forum until you grab a clue. A good start will be your familiarizing yourself with policies and proceedures, and general culture of the board.

You still haven't grabbed a clue have you nutboy.

jrose

nutboy, oldgoat has already made this quite clear, and now I will do the same. You need to respect this forum.

nutboy

I don't appear to be barred. And I would consider it rather unreasonable to be barred just for disagreeing with people politely

remind remind's picture

Nutboy you were told to STAY out of the feminist form completely, which you are NOT doing.

jrose

You're being far from polite, nutboy. Ignoring the requests of administrators is NOT polite. Thanks, remind. I'm working on it!

oldgoat

quote:


Originally posted by nutboy:
[b]I don't appear to be barred. And I would consider it rather unreasonable to be barred just for disagreeing with people politely[/b]

Well you are now.

oldgoat

Beat ya to it by mere seconds, jrose! [img]biggrin.gif" border="0[/img]

jrose

Update from Feministing.com

quote:

Woman sues judge for banning the word 'rape' at trial
Remember the judge in Nebraska who banned the word "rape" at a rape trial? (Cough, asshole, cough.) Remember the bad-ass woman who refused his order? Well, she's suing.

The accuser in a sexual assault case is suing a judge because he barred the word "rape" and other words from the trial.
The federal court complaint filed Thursday in U.S. District Court in Lincoln, Neb., claims Lancaster County District Judge Jeffre Cheuvront violated the accuser's First Amendment right to free speech by barring her from saying words including "rape," "victim" and "assailant" during the trial of Pamir Safi.

Good for her, cause that was some bullshit. By the way, there have been two mistrials in this case because of the controversy over the language ban. Prosecutors are planning on seeking a third trial.


robbie_dee

I am skeptical of whether this woman could prevail in her lawsuit (judges make evidentiary rulings all the time which limit witness testimony). However, this lawsuit may have another benefit: requiring the judge to recuse himself from the third trial.

Michelle

Yeah, I doubt she'll get anywhere with it, but if it does force the judge to recuse himself from the third trial, then all the better!

The only thing is - wouldn't he have set some sort of precedent by ruling against using those words in a courtroom? Does this mean that future judges for similar cases have to make the same ruling now that it's a precedent?

Sven Sven's picture

quote:


Originally posted by Michelle:
[b]Yeah, I doubt she'll get anywhere with it, but if it does force the judge to recuse himself from the third trial, then all the better!

The only thing is - wouldn't he have set some sort of precedent by ruling against using those words in a courtroom? Does this mean that future judges for similar cases have to make the same ruling now that it's a precedent?[/b]


No. A trial judge sets no precedent. Other trial judges are free to follow or not follow what other trial judges do. A judge must follow precedent that is set by a [b][i]higher[/b][/i] (appellate) court.

Michelle

Ah, okay. That makes sense. I couldn't imagine that every dumbass move by every judge had to be followed by all of the other judges - otherwise, what would you do if two judges made polar opposite decisions?

Thanks. No shortage of legal advice on babble. [img]biggrin.gif" border="0[/img]

[ 12 September 2007: Message edited by: Michelle ]

quelar

Sorry for a bit of drift, but I think it relates.

I was listening to a report on the 'sexual assaults' at the University campus and I was thinking that just in the way it was being reported they were in effect, minimizing the crime.

The reason is, when I hear RAPE, I cringe. I actually think it's an even more brutal crime than murder in most cases, as murder doesn't leave a victim constantly reliving the event (family and friends, but not the actual victim).

But when I hear 'sexual assault' and rightly so, it can conjure up images of inappropriate touching, and other acts that are reprehensible but not as violent and destructive as a RAPE.

To the same effect, it sounds like this judge was trying to minimize the criminal act by removing words that put clear images in the minds of the jury of the brutal act.

Michelle

I don't have a problem with the judge not using the word "rape" or police officers not being allowed to use the word or whatever. But the problem is, there are two sides to the story being heard in court. One side says it was sex with consent (or no sexual contact at all). The other side says it was rape.

The one side is allowed to claim that it was sex, but the other side isn't allowed to claim that it was rape?

I have a big problem with that. There is no reason why the witnesses, who are there to give their testimony about what they say happened, should have to be "neutral". They're not neutral, by definition - they're witnesses who are telling what they saw. Does the judge have to be neutral? Yes. But the witnesses shouldn't have to be!

Maysie Maysie's picture

Going with quelar's drift, this is one of the issues with the term "sexual assault". On the one hand, we (I'm speaking for all feminists now [img]smile.gif" border="0[/img] ) wanted a larger term than rape, that would encompass the illegality and the experience of violation of the many forms that "sexual assault" can take, including rape. One the other hand, it's true that the emotional punch that the word "rape" delivers doesn't happen for "sexual assault".

For me (now just speaking for myself) the notion of encompassing is desireable, so that all women and men understand the violation and violence that's expressed in a sexual manner takes many forms.

As women, fear of sexual assault is real, and we don't need a word or phrase to carry the "emotional" weight. Whatever the term we use, the reality remains the same.

[ 12 September 2007: Message edited by: bigcitygal ]

Summer

I agree BCG. I think it's important that we (all feminists again [img]smile.gif" border="0[/img] ) make sure people understand that rape is encompassed in the term sexual assault and that sexual assault should not be trivialized - as in "oh well, she was just groped/kissed/forced to do oral sex, not raped".
I see this attitude a lot. If a woman is raped (especially by a stranger who uses a weapon), there's usually agreeement that the perpetrator should be jailed for a long time. But when someone finds out it was "just" a form of sexual assault I described above, there's all of a sudden a lot less agreement about the appropriate sentence (if any).

Maysie Maysie's picture

And to take what you've said further, Summer, it gets more and more difficult for some to understand that if this was someone she had been out on a few dates with, or her boyfriend of 6 months, or her husband of 5 years, the reality of many people "getting" that she was raped/sexually assaulted gets smaller and smaller. This includes the legal system.

And I won't even get into fathers/coaches/other family members/former Ontario premiers that are "pillars of the community" [img]mad.gif" border="0[/img]

jeff house

quote:


was listening to a report on the 'sexual assaults' at the University campus and I was thinking that just in the way it was being reported they were in effect, minimizing the crime.

The reason is, when I hear RAPE, I cringe. ....But when I hear 'sexual assault' and rightly so, it can conjure up images of inappropriate touching, and other acts that are reprehensible but not as violent and destructive as a RAPE.


When I was in law school in the mid-1970s, Canada had a crime called "rape". However, there was a broad campaign against this word, largely among feminists. As I recall, the idea was that "rape" was primarily an act of violence in which the female was put under domination by the male, and that the word "rape" understated that violence.

Eventually, the government agreed, and "rape" became an act of violence/assault, specifically, "sexual assault".

It may be that the words sexual assault are too undefined, since they include anything from an unwanted caress to traditional "rape".

But commonly, the women's movement also objected to traditional definitions of "rape" which required penetration; they felt that the offence was committed when violence and sexual subjugation were present, whether or not penetration occurred.

So the question was never answered as to what, exactly would be "more serious sexual assault" unless injuries were present. But obviously, women hated the idea that a serious sexual assault could not occur unless the victim had injuries.

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